Why is there something rather than nothing? (Humans)

by xeno6696 , Sonoran Desert, Thursday, April 07, 2011, 14:27 (4775 days ago) @ dhw

Matt says the above question is not valid: "Abstracting the language, it's asking "Why is there [noun] rather than [adjective]?"
> 
> I've warned you before about your language! On 21 March at 20.14 I told you 'nothing' was a pronoun not an adjective, and now you've been rightly rapped over the knuckles by Dr David. Let me console you, though, It's possible to use 'nothing' as an adjective, in an expression like: "This is a nothing argument". I'd say that's a pretty appropriate example!-Heh. In China, India and Japan, "Nothing" is an adjective.-Western philosophers cede to eastern in discussions about "nothing." So, I'll let you decide who is right... but I will be interested to see if you see a way through...

--
\"Why is it, Master, that ascetics fight with ascetics?\"

\"It is, brahmin, because of attachment to views, adherence to views, fixation on views, addiction to views, obsession with views, holding firmly to views that ascetics fight with ascetics.\"