Why is there something rather than nothing? (Humans)

by Balance_Maintained @, U.S.A., Monday, April 04, 2011, 06:54 (4981 days ago) @ David Turell

"Something" spread out across an infinite void is a logical fallacy. If 'something' exists, 'nothing' can not exist. They are antithetical. Therefore, any theory, or hypothesis(which is really what it is since it can not be tested), that is based on 'nothing' is a logical fallacy because 'something' exists. Otherwise, we would not be having this conversation.


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