Why is there something rather than nothing? (Humans)

by xeno6696 , Sonoran Desert, Monday, March 21, 2011, 01:26 (4996 days ago) @ dhw

dhw,-
I don't think I really made a full point. Let me add this addendum. -Once we've established that 'nothing' and 'something' exist as descriptions of some object--one could even say mathematically--we realize that the totality of existence includes both that something AND that nothing. If you approach the rest of creation under this guise, the question then of "Why is there something rather than nothing," ceases to be a valid question. As Nietzsche would say, "This isn't a binary question!"-This begins to also bleed over into the eastern notion of "cause and effect" although there is no consensus on this even in eastern thinking... clearly Brahman is a prime cause in Hinduism, Buddhism--specifically only the Vietnamese/Chinese/Japanese/Korean versions are the only ones that view the idea of a 'prime cause' in the way that I do here with the concept of 'something and nothing.' The question of a prime cause isn't a valid question. -This is why the one universal among eastern religions--the universe is ageless and infinite--tends to be the predominant thought.

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\"Why is it, Master, that ascetics fight with ascetics?\"

\"It is, brahmin, because of attachment to views, adherence to views, fixation on views, addiction to views, obsession with views, holding firmly to views that ascetics fight with ascetics.\"