Why is there something rather than nothing? (Humans)

by David Turell , Thursday, April 07, 2011, 02:57 (4776 days ago) @ xeno6696

You can only compare two like things--nouns to nouns, adjectives to adjectives. 
> 
> Nothing is not a 'thing,' which is exactly why East trumps West in its discussion. Nothing is less than a "placeholder," the mathematical "Empty Set." An adjective presupposes the existence of the thing to which it describes, therefore "Universe" and "Nothing" are not separate entities.-My problem with your statement is that 'nothing' in the collegiate dictionary is a pronoun, not an adjective. Besides it is primarily Leibniz' question not mine. I simply repeated the statement to open a discussion.