Why is there something rather than nothing? (Humans)

by xeno6696 , Sonoran Desert, Monday, March 21, 2011, 19:04 (4995 days ago) @ David Turell

This is why the one universal among eastern religions--the universe is ageless and infinite--tends to be the predominant thought.
> 
> Of course, if everything is eternal there is no first cause. Everything always is. The Western and Eastern thoughts must have been very similar, until Hubble showed the univese was expanding and then the Big Bang became the primary theory in the West. That certainly looks like a beginning and first cause becomes a strong consideration. Which raises an issue and I haven't studied for an answer. Aristotle must not have considered the universe eternal, or he felt there was a cause an eternity ago.-The distinction for eastern thought isn't (simply) an assertion that the universe is eternal, but that "nothing" and "something" can only exist as descriptions of some thing.-So the rejection of the Leibniz question comes from this thrust--and indeed it is powerful.

--
\"Why is it, Master, that ascetics fight with ascetics?\"

\"It is, brahmin, because of attachment to views, adherence to views, fixation on views, addiction to views, obsession with views, holding firmly to views that ascetics fight with ascetics.\"