Why is there something rather than nothing? (Humans)

by xeno6696 @, Sonoran Desert, Friday, March 18, 2011, 02:30 (4796 days ago)

David has pointed to this old question of Leibniz on a couple of occasions. I would posit this simple solution:-Nothing cannot be understood without something. -Or in other words; you cannot know the difference between nothing and something. They both describe the same thing. One cannot conceive of nothing unless there is something...

--
\"Why is it, Master, that ascetics fight with ascetics?\"

\"It is, brahmin, because of attachment to views, adherence to views, fixation on views, addiction to views, obsession with views, holding firmly to views that ascetics fight with ascetics.\"


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