Refutation of the \"Language-Only\" Interpretation of Math (The limitations of science)

by xeno6696 , Sonoran Desert, Thursday, February 25, 2010, 23:05 (5172 days ago) @ George Jelliss

This question has been burning away at me for the past week, so I took the time to drop in on one of the head honchos of mathematics at UNO. His response goes something like this: (paraph)-PI exists if Euclidean Geometry exists. One of many interesting geometric results is that you can create a euclidean space in hyperbolic geometry, and vice-versa. Just because we don't live in a Euclidean 3-space is not an argument for the non-existence of Euclidean 3-space. Have you asked him if sqrt(-1) exists? -And a quote: "One thing that you might bring up is the fact that while mathematical objects are a consequence of their axiomatic basis (language and the rules of the language), they are not time-dependent. Nor are they culturally dependent (relativism). So I wouldn't consider them to be purely imaginary."

--
\"Why is it, Master, that ascetics fight with ascetics?\"

\"It is, brahmin, because of attachment to views, adherence to views, fixation on views, addiction to views, obsession with views, holding firmly to views that ascetics fight with ascetics.\"